(This article was originally published at Simply Statistics, and syndicated at StatsBlogs.)
Below is a plot of per capita GPD (in log scale) against years since women received the right to vote for 42 countries. Is this cause, effect, both or neither? We all know correlation does not imply causation, but I see many (non statistical) arguments to support both cause and effect here. Happy International Women's Day ! 
The data is from here and here. I removed countries where women have had the right to vote for less than 20 years.
pd -What's with Switzerland?
update - R^2 and p-value added to graph
Please comment on the article here: Simply Statistics
